I'm seeing the solicitor on Wednesday, so will get the full low down then, but interested if anyone has some advice or guidance on this one. We've been separated for the best part of 3 years now. She moved out to a flat down the road to be nearer to her work (she had just started a new job after time out at home looking after our daughter), and because she wanted her own place. I paid her above the odds in terms of maintenance a) because I could and b) because it worked out good for all of us. However, last year she had a baby by another guy, who has since pretty much done a runner and is only paying a pittance in maintenance for the other child. The Ex now has to make a decision about going back to work, and amazingly she had agreed on finding another place to rent that was going to be easier for her with dashing between school and nursery (I meant to add that I have our daughter 2 nights a week minimum, an extra night every other week over the weekend, and ad hoc extra days when it works out). For a bunch of reasons she has suddenly found herself in the brown stuff, with her SMP ended, and unable to get any housing benefit or income support, which means she has to move out of the flat pretty sharpish. She wants to move back into the house, not surprisingly, and I know I cannot stop her. I also know that doesn't mean I have to move out, even though that means she can't then get any benefits until I do, so again she will find it hard to go back to work. All of which is a long winded way of getting round to the question of what is likely to happen with the house in any divorce? Given that the mortgage each month is way higher than she could afford except by receiving benefits, that would then tie up the equity for a long time. Would the court award her occupancy of the house with such a shaky reliance on benefits to pay the mortgage if it was transferred to her? Or would they prefer a clean break? I would prefer the latter, as I have some family support offered to help buy her out.