Hi all, I was wondering if I could pick the medical brains on here about how a case of conservatively managed ?appendicitis (ie no surgery, solely IV antibiotics then oral antibiotics) might be viewed in a joining medical exam. I appreciate there is controversy over this way of managing appendicitis with medical literature currently divided in thoughts about its efficacy, especially given that it's associated with a relatively higher rate of recurrence. Would a symptom free period of 1 month, 3 months, 6 months etc... be required? I've had a look through older posts, but couldn't quite find anything like this. Any thoughts would be appreciated.