Apologies if this has been done before ... Following on from the http://www.arrse.co.uk/military-history-militaria/176605-french-resistance.html thread, I was wondering what the French perception of the differences between the occupations of France in WWI and WWII is/was? Whilst google-skimming WWII for the aforementioned thread, I came across some WWI information. The impression I gained was that the Germans were more brutal and controlling in WWI than in WWII. Clearly this isn't something that a know-nothing such as myself is going to be able to form a reasonable opinion on in any kind of a reasonable time frame, so I'd be interested in seeing what those more knowledgeable (and, of course, my fellow ignorami (*) think). =================================================== Yes, I know the plural is ignoramuses, but I just happen to prefer Ruggle's original to the OED definition.